Fraud in the Bible

Pious fraud was a common technique employed by early Christian writers to make a point. Their intention was to convert anyone and everyone by any means available. One of the more persuasive methods was to write a text and falsely tell others that it was written in first person. For example, the four canonized gospel tales were not written by Mathew , Mark , Luke, or John. That has been a well known foact for about 200 years. And to this day, no one knows who the gospel stories were written by . These texts are perfect examples of poius fraud. Pios fraund is the foundation of the deception known as Christianity and it continues to this day.

During the first couple of centuries of the Common Era the early Christian priestcraf, which would eventually become the Catholic father, were in the process of assimiliating religions forms all over Europe. Ultimately the new religion become become known as the Christian reeligion, or more accurately The Catholic Church. The Bible was put together by hundreds of people who were either at the head of the fround or were pawns in the assembly. Once the original languages were ransiated in to Latin, it was only a matter of time before of time before the original language nuances could be disregarded. Ever wonder why it was punishable by death by the common folk to read it, that is. Well. the errors, inconsistencies and flat-out lies that riddled the Bible. If the common man found out it culd have been the death of the Church's authority, power and control over the masses. And since the originasl language are rarely, if ever, used by those who read the Bible (actually READ it). the fraud is perpetuated.

When a poius fraud is knowingly perpetuated in the name of power and money, you have deception. Remember, 1700-2000 years ago, when these texts were being assembled into a "new testament", the vast majority of humanity was iliterate. Science was not known. Demons rules the world. Anything could be put forth and said to be "absolute truth" when it was in fact completely fraudulent.

What is the implication of thes? Theimplication is selfevident. The story of Genesis, that Christian proselytizers love to advance (altho it is part of the much older Jewist text), is a complete and utter forgery. in that story we are led to believe that there was a single god who created the earth, etc. in 6 days. Not only has science proven the timeline to be completely false, the time that the Genesis story was supposed to have been written the Hewbrew people were not monothestic. Thats history. They belive in many gods and Genesis proves it. The story actually goes back to before the Hebrews were a distinct people-it is not Hebrew in origin.

Let's take a look at the very first words of the book of Genesis. Note very carefully that the Hebrew culture, at the time of this writing, was not monothestic, but rather,polytheistic. Will your priest, minister or preacher tell you that? No. But you can find out for yourself with a simple dictionary.

To clarify, here is the translation of the Hebrew text of Genesis 1. Notice how Jewish and Christian 'fathers' don't bother to tell you what the original text says. They would like you to belive that a single god created everything. But they messed up big time and actually translated it properly in plain English, the translation reads "let us make man in our image."

When speaking of Hebrew deity, Yahveh elohim isused 2570 times. It is always falsely translated to the singular "God", thus falsely makeing us believe that this text was written at a time when the Hebrew people were monothestic, when it clearly is the case (written at least 2570 times, no les!) that they WERE NOT.

Yahveh-elohim is a Hebrew "construc-form" which is translated to "Yahveh-of-gods." Invanriably these personal names were falsely translated LOrd" and "Lord God." respectively, for purposes of pious fraud.

There was no first man "Adam," according to the Hebrew text/ The word adam in Hebrew is a common noun, meaning man in a generic sense and in Genesis 1:26, is states "And elohim (gods) sai, Let us make adam (man); and so elohim created ha- adam (the man);....male and female created he them" (1;27).

Man is called in Hebrew adam beacuse he was formed out of adamah, the ground, just as latin man is called homo beacuse he was formed from humus, the ground. Early Christian fathers Lactantius stated it as "homo ex-humo (man froum the ground'. or "dust" as it commonly stated today).

The forging of the name Adam from the Hebrew nounadam into a mythical proper name Adam, was after the socalled Exodus. The fraud in the foging of fictitious genealogies from "in the beginning" to Father Abraham.

In Genesis 1 is the account of the creation of the elohim-gods-on the fifth day, of "nephesh hayyah" which is "the moving creature that hath life," and of 'nephesh hayyah every living creature" out of the waters (1:20, 21); and on the sixth day of "nephesh hayyah-the living creatures" out of the fround (1-24); and he gave to ha-adam-the dominion over "kol nephesh hagyah-everything wherein there is life." (1:30)

In Chapter 2 is the history of ha-adam made from haadamah, and , in contrast to these lowly "living creatures" (nephesh hayyah). Yahveh-clohim "breathed into his nostrills nishmath hayyim-(living) is the feminine singular adjective from hai, life.

Unknown scribes, in translation, made animals merely creatures, and "creation's masterpiece, Man," became a "living soul." They falsely altered these lain words so as to deceive us into believing a special Gad-breathed sould is in man which is completely different from animal that merely perishes to dust.

The implication of this is that someone has fraudulently decided that we are a special creation that has a soul, and eliminated the actual words of what Genesis says. Now all other animals don't have a soul. According to the story all things thatlive have a soul. So what happened here? Forgery. That's what happend.

When Yahveh appeared to Moses in the Burning Bush, and announced himself as "the God of thy fathers," he was a total stranger to Moses. How do i know" Read the account. It doesn't take a scholar to read where Moses ASKS who's talking. No, Moses wasn't merely surprised at the voive.....he simply didn't know what was going on. (The fact that Moses is just a rehash of the Egyptian Mises is another essy altogether. But for the purposes of this essay. I'm pretending that Moses was a real person.)

Moses did not know this Yahveh, and had never heard of him. So that he asked. "What is thy name?": -so that he could report it to the people back home in Eygpt, who had never heard it. After some intermission, the God came directly to the point, and declared-here are the exact words-one of the most notorious falsities in the Hebrew text.

The Hebrew God for the first time since the world began, is "revealed" to mankind the "ineffable name" of Yahveh, here first appearing in the Bible translations, and there printed as JEHOVAH in capital letters, for more vivid and awe-inspiring impression.

But this is a notorious lie-since we known that Moses did not write the first five books of the Hebrew text.In Genesis 2-4, the name YAHEVEH first appears, "in the day that Yahveh-elohim made the earth and the heavens." Its first recorded use as a mystical personage, was when Eve "conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from Yahveh-the lord."(Gen,4-1).

The personal name YAHVEH occurs in the Book of Genesis one hundred and fifty-six times. Its spoken dozens of times by Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, as any one can read in Genesis, Every single time that the title "the Lord" and "the Lord God" appears, it is a false translation by the priests for the Hebrew personal name YAHVEN.

Throughout the Hebrew "scriptures" it occours thousands of times: "The sacred name occurs in Genesis- 156 times; and is found in the Old Testament approximately 6000 times, either alone or in along with another Divine name."

More exactaly, the Tetragrammation (YHVH). appears in the Old Testament 6823 times as the proper name of God as the God of Israel. As such it serves to distinguish him from the gods of the other nations. "Thus was the Hebrew tribal god YAHEVH distinguished from Bel, and Chemosh, and Dagon, and Shamash, and the dozens of "gods of the nations". Just as James would distingush his name from Rudolph, or Cary, this was precisely the Hebrew usage-to distinguish one heathen god from another.

And this the pious translators, foisting their fraud on us, sought to hide, giving names to all the "other gods," but suppressing a name for the Hebrew deity, who as "the Lord," or "the Lord God," was high unique, "a god above all gods," -the one and only ture God-thru the use of a tetragrammanton.

But yet a more malicious and evil-intentioned deception, 6828 times, is the name of Hebrew God concealed by false renditon for the deliberated, into a semblance of harmany with the false decleration of Exodus 6:3 the god-name YAHVEH (Jehovah) is never to be found in the translation, exept in Psalm 78:18 and Isaiah 12:2 and 26:4 (But they are irelevant for this discussion beacuse those passages were written well after the original 5 books were forged.)

The false translations thus "ake truth to be a liar," the lie of Expdus 6:3 to seen the truth; and a barbarous heathen tribal god among a hundred neighbor and competitive gods to be the nameless One Lord God of the Universe For more on this tribal god, you can read.

What does this imply? It implies this; the Hebrew-Christion-One -God is a patent forgery and myth, a mythological Father-god can have n"only begotten Son"; Jesus Christ is a myth even before he is mythically born by teh forged whimsy of the early Christian "fathers."

Son of Man in all three major Semitic languages (Aramaic, Hebrew, and Arabic) the term barnasha means "human being". Jesus often refferred to himself as a human being (28 times in the Gospels). The meaning of barasha has created a lot of confusion in the Gospels. It is impossible to translate the Aramaic term of barnasha literally as "son of man" and yet most biblical transiators have and still do just that to this day. In the Aramaic language the word bar s combined with many other words to create differant meanings - most specifically is means a "likeness" - For example barabba means "reasembles his farther". Barhila translated literally would mean "son of power" but in reality it means "soldier". So when we read the Gospels the phrase "son of man" it should be read correctly as "human being".

Son of God. The word bar means a likeness or resemblance to the suffix word. The Aramaic term that Son of God comes from is bardalaha. Translated literally as "son of God" it does not mean this Bardalaha in reality means "like God" or "God-like" or "like God" we should read this correctly as "God-like" or "like-God". So what does that tell you that Jesus was not the Son of God- but that he was "God-like". There is a big difference. Jesus himself repeatedly refered to himself as a "human being". The Aramic reference does not mean one is physically divine- it means there is an important spiritual relationship between God and the man whom is bestowed that phraseology in additon, don't forget that the Council of Nicea in 325 CE voted to change the human Jesus to a supernatural being. It wasn't until that time that any church though of Jesus as such.

Only Begotten Son. The world ehedaya is Aramaic. It is very important to understand its meaning when hearing that phrase being bantered about. WWhen we read that Jesus was Gods "only begotten son" - it is an incorrect translation of the Aramaic work. The trem is found exclusively in teh Gospel of John. The phrase we read in English was Translated from a Greek word, monogenes, Monos means "single" or "one" and genos means "knids" So the Greek translation originally was with "one-of-akind" So where does 'begotten' come from? The Greek means "to beget". Thus to translate mongenes as "only begotten" is improper and incorrect- which is an indication of an ill-trained translator being involved with the text. The actual transiation should be "unique son" or "one-of-akind" The Aramaic word ehedaya means "sole heir" and "the beloved". So when we combine monogenes ehedays we get "one-of-a-kind, beloved son" Thats considerably different from 'only begotten son.'


	DO YOU TRUST YOUR GOVERNMENT \| home About Me \| Favorite Links \| Title 21 \| Title 22 \| Fraud in the Bible \| Contact Me \| Miscellaneous Fraud in the Bible It Sucks That You Don't Kow Hebrew,Greek or Aramaic What is Pious Froud? Pious fraud was a common technique employed by early Christian writers to make a point. Their intention was to convert anyone and everyone by any means available. One of the more persuasive methods was to write a text and falsely tell others that it was written in first person. For example, the four canonized gospel tales were not written by Mathew , Mark , Luke, or John. That has been a well known foact for about 200 years. And to this day, no one knows who the gospel stories were written by . These texts are perfect examples of poius fraud. Pios fraund is the foundation of the deception known as Christianity and it continues to this day. During the first couple of centuries of the Common Era the early Christian priestcraf, which would eventually become the Catholic father, were in the process of assimiliating religions forms all over Europe. Ultimately the new religion become become known as the Christian reeligion, or more accurately The Catholic Church. The Bible was put together by hundreds of people who were either at the head of the fround or were pawns in the assembly. Once the original languages were ransiated in to Latin, it was only a matter of time before of time before the original language nuances could be disregarded. Ever wonder why it was punishable by death by the common folk to read it, that is. Well. the errors, inconsistencies and flat-out lies that riddled the Bible. If the common man found out it culd have been the death of the Church's authority, power and control over the masses. And since the originasl language are rarely, if ever, used by those who read the Bible (actually READ it). the fraud is perpetuated. When a poius fraud is knowingly perpetuated in the name of power and money, you have deception. Remember, 1700-2000 years ago, when these texts were being assembled into a "new testament", the vast majority of humanity was iliterate. Science was not known. Demons rules the world. Anything could be put forth and said to be "absolute truth" when it was in fact completely fraudulent. What is the implication of thes? Theimplication is selfevident. The story of Genesis, that Christian proselytizers love to advance (altho it is part of the much older Jewist text), is a complete and utter forgery. in that story we are led to believe that there was a single god who created the earth, etc. in 6 days. Not only has science proven the timeline to be completely false, the time that the Genesis story was supposed to have been written the Hewbrew people were not monothestic. Thats history. They belive in many gods and Genesis proves it. The story actually goes back to before the Hebrews were a distinct people-it is not Hebrew in origin. Pious Fraud in Translation Let's take a look at the very first words of the book of Genesis. Note very carefully that the Hebrew culture, at the time of this writing, was not monothestic, but rather,polytheistic. Will your priest, minister or preacher tell you that? No. But you can find out for yourself with a simple dictionary. The Hebrew word for God is el, the plural is elohim, gods. What is the first sentence in the Bible? "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth"(Gen. 1;1). Here is Genesis 1;1 in Hebrew (transliterated into the Latin alphabet, of course): "Bereshith bara elohim," etc., "In-beginning created (the) gods(the)heavens and (the) earth." In the same chapter the word "elohim" (gods) is used thirty times. Those gods are the ones who created the "universe' in 6 days. To clarify, here is the translation of the Hebrew text of Genesis 1. Notice how Jewish and Christian 'fathers' don't bother to tell you what the original text says. They would like you to belive that a single god created everything. But they messed up big time and actually translated it properly in plain English, the translation reads "let us make man in our image." Here are three examples of the Hebrew plural gods mentioned in Genesis. 1 "And said elchim (gods), let US make man (adam) in-image OUR, after likeness OUR" (1:26) 2, And when "adam" had eated of the fobidden fruit of the tree of knowledge, "the Lord God" said, "Behold, the-man has become like one of US, to know good and evil"(3:27). #, And when the Tower of Babel was being built; "The Lord [HeB, Yahveh] said....Come, let US go down," etc. When speaking of Hebrew deity, Yahveh elohim isused 2570 times. It is always falsely translated to the singular "God", thus falsely makeing us believe that this text was written at a time when the Hebrew people were monothestic, when it clearly is the case (written at least 2570 times, no les!) that they WERE NOT. In the three Genesis verses aboue, there are three different designations of the Hebrew deity of deities; elohim, (gods), falsely translated "God". Lord God (Heb. Yahveh-elohim); and Lord (deb Yahveh). Yahven is the proper name of the Hebrew God, which, in English, is Jehovah. Yahveh-elohim is a Hebrew "construc-form" which is translated to "Yahveh-of-gods." Invanriably these personal names were falsely translated LOrd" and "Lord God." respectively, for purposes of pious fraud. First Man, First Woman. There was no first man "Adam," according to the Hebrew text/ The word adam in Hebrew is a common noun, meaning man in a generic sense and in Genesis 1:26, is states "And elohim (gods) sai, Let us make adam (man); and so elohim created ha- adam (the man);....male and female created he them" (1;27). In the second creation story, where man is first made alone. "yahveh formed ha-adam (the-man) out of the dust of ha-adamah-the ground" (2:7). Man is called in Hebrew adam beacuse he was formed out of adamah, the ground, just as latin man is called homo beacuse he was formed from humus, the ground. Early Christian fathers Lactantius stated it as "homo ex-humo (man froum the ground'. or "dust" as it commonly stated today). The forging of the name Adam from the Hebrew nounadam into a mythical proper name Adam, was after the socalled Exodus. The fraud in the foging of fictitious genealogies from "in the beginning" to Father Abraham. And this wasn't done by Christians, but rather by early Hebrew priests. Nonetheless, early Christians took this deception and used it for their own newly forged religion. Who has a Soul? In Genesis 1 is the account of the creation of the elohim-gods-on the fifth day, of "nephesh hayyah" which is "the moving creature that hath life," and of 'nephesh hayyah every living creature" out of the waters (1:20, 21); and on the sixth day of "nephesh hayyah-the living creatures" out of the fround (1-24); and he gave to ha-adam-the dominion over "kol nephesh hagyah-everything wherein there is life." (1:30) The Hebrew text states that all animal living creatures are by God called "nephesh hayyah," literally "living soul". In Chapter 2 is the history of ha-adam made from haadamah, and , in contrast to these lowly "living creatures" (nephesh hayyah). Yahveh-clohim "breathed into his nostrills nishmath hayyim-(living) is the feminine singular adjective from hai, life. In the original Hebrew text, Man was created exasctaly the same as the other animals, All had or were 'nephesh hayyah' or living souls. Remember, tho, that the reason there are two creation stories is beacuse two culture's stories of creation were woven together by the early hebrew priestcraft. Unknown scribes, in translation, made animals merely creatures, and "creation's masterpiece, Man," became a "living soul." They falsely altered these lain words so as to deceive us into believing a special Gad-breathed sould is in man which is completely different from animal that merely perishes to dust. The implication of this is that someone has fraudulently decided that we are a special creation that has a soul, and eliminated the actual words of what Genesis says. Now all other animals don't have a soul. According to the story all things thatlive have a soul. So what happened here? Forgery. That's what happend. Chalk one up for vegetarians. There Was No Continuous Hebrew Monothestic Culture. When Yahveh appeared to Moses in the Burning Bush, and announced himself as "the God of thy fathers," he was a total stranger to Moses. How do i know" Read the account. It doesn't take a scholar to read where Moses ASKS who's talking. No, Moses wasn't merely surprised at the voive.....he simply didn't know what was going on. (The fact that Moses is just a rehash of the Egyptian Mises is another essy altogether. But for the purposes of this essay. I'm pretending that Moses was a real person.) Moses did not know this Yahveh, and had never heard of him. So that he asked. "What is thy name?": -so that he could report it to the people back home in Eygpt, who had never heard it. After some intermission, the God came directly to the point, and declared-here are the exact words-one of the most notorious falsities in the Hebrew text. "And elohim spake unto Moses, and said unto him, anoki Yahveh- I am the Lord! "and I appeared unto Abraham, unto isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of el-shasddai, but by my name Yahveh (JEHOVAH) was i not know to them." (Ex. 6:2,8) The Hebrew God for the first time since the world began, is "revealed" to mankind the "ineffable name" of Yahveh, here first appearing in the Bible translations, and there printed as JEHOVAH in capital letters, for more vivid and awe-inspiring impression. But this is a notorious lie-since we known that Moses did not write the first five books of the Hebrew text.In Genesis 2-4, the name YAHEVEH first appears, "in the day that Yahveh-elohim made the earth and the heavens." Its first recorded use as a mystical personage, was when Eve "conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from Yahveh-the lord."(Gen,4-1). The personal name YAHVEH occurs in the Book of Genesis one hundred and fifty-six times. Its spoken dozens of times by Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, as any one can read in Genesis, Every single time that the title "the Lord" and "the Lord God" appears, it is a false translation by the priests for the Hebrew personal name YAHVEN. Throughout the Hebrew "scriptures" it occours thousands of times: "The sacred name occurs in Genesis- 156 times; and is found in the Old Testament approximately 6000 times, either alone or in along with another Divine name." More exactaly, the Tetragrammation (YHVH). appears in the Old Testament 6823 times as the proper name of God as the God of Israel. As such it serves to distinguish him from the gods of the other nations. "Thus was the Hebrew tribal god YAHEVH distinguished from Bel, and Chemosh, and Dagon, and Shamash, and the dozens of "gods of the nations". Just as James would distingush his name from Rudolph, or Cary, this was precisely the Hebrew usage-to distinguish one heathen god from another. And this the pious translators, foisting their fraud on us, sought to hide, giving names to all the "other gods," but suppressing a name for the Hebrew deity, who as "the Lord," or "the Lord God," was high unique, "a god above all gods," -the one and only ture God-thru the use of a tetragrammanton. But yet a more malicious and evil-intentioned deception, 6828 times, is the name of Hebrew God concealed by false renditon for the deliberated, into a semblance of harmany with the false decleration of Exodus 6:3 the god-name YAHVEH (Jehovah) is never to be found in the translation, exept in Psalm 78:18 and Isaiah 12:2 and 26:4 (But they are irelevant for this discussion beacuse those passages were written well after the original 5 books were forged.) The false translations thus "ake truth to be a liar," the lie of Expdus 6:3 to seen the truth; and a barbarous heathen tribal god among a hundred neighbor and competitive gods to be the nameless One Lord God of the Universe For more on this tribal god, you can read. Who is thes Jehovah and Where Does He Live? What does this imply? It implies this; the Hebrew-Christion-One -God is a patent forgery and myth, a mythological Father-god can have n"only begotten Son"; Jesus Christ is a myth even before he is mythically born by teh forged whimsy of the early Christian "fathers." A Few Translations These translations, while only three in number, will change your whole way of thinking about what is being presented in your Bible. Son of Man in all three major Semitic languages (Aramaic, Hebrew, and Arabic) the term barnasha means "human being". Jesus often refferred to himself as a human being (28 times in the Gospels). The meaning of barasha has created a lot of confusion in the Gospels. It is impossible to translate the Aramaic term of barnasha literally as "son of man" and yet most biblical transiators have and still do just that to this day. In the Aramaic language the word bar s combined with many other words to create differant meanings - most specifically is means a "likeness" - For example barabba means "reasembles his farther". Barhila translated literally would mean "son of power" but in reality it means "soldier". So when we read the Gospels the phrase "son of man" it should be read correctly as "human being". Son of God. The word bar means a likeness or resemblance to the suffix word. The Aramaic term that Son of God comes from is bardalaha. Translated literally as "son of God" it does not mean this Bardalaha in reality means "like God" or "God-like" or "like God" we should read this correctly as "God-like" or "like-God". So what does that tell you that Jesus was not the Son of God- but that he was "God-like". There is a big difference. Jesus himself repeatedly refered to himself as a "human being". The Aramic reference does not mean one is physically divine- it means there is an important spiritual relationship between God and the man whom is bestowed that phraseology in additon, don't forget that the Council of Nicea in 325 CE voted to change the human Jesus to a supernatural being. It wasn't until that time that any church though of Jesus as such. Only Begotten Son. The world ehedaya is Aramaic. It is very important to understand its meaning when hearing that phrase being bantered about. WWhen we read that Jesus was Gods "only begotten son" - it is an incorrect translation of the Aramaic work. The trem is found exclusively in teh Gospel of John. The phrase we read in English was Translated from a Greek word, monogenes, Monos means "single" or "one" and genos means "knids" So the Greek translation originally was with "one-of-akind" So where does 'begotten' come from? The Greek means "to beget". Thus to translate mongenes as "only begotten" is improper and incorrect- which is an indication of an ill-trained translator being involved with the text. The actual transiation should be "unique son" or "one-of-akind" The Aramaic word ehedaya means "sole heir" and "the beloved". So when we combine monogenes ehedays we get "one-of-a-kind, beloved son" Thats considerably different from 'only begotten son.'